Let (an),(bn) be sequences of real numbers. Let Sn=∑j=1naj and set S0=0. Show that for any 1⩽m⩽n we have
j=m∑najbj=Snbn−Sm−1bm+j=m∑n−1Sj(bj−bj+1)
Suppose that the series ∑n⩾1an converges and that (bn) is bounded and monotonic. Does ∑n⩾1anbn converge?
Assume again that ∑n⩾1an converges. Does ∑n⩾1n1/nan converge?
Justify your answers.
[You may use the fact that a sequence of real numbers converges if and only if it is a Cauchy sequence.]